Date: 01/01/2022
WAS PAKISTAN RESOLUTION OF 1940 NOT AN ACT OF HIGH TREASON?
Dear Patriots,
A doubt is lurking in all of us that Mr Jinnah’s demand for a separate Islamic State for the INDIAN Muslims was an act of High Treason.
If that is so, why did barrister-in-law MK Gandhi, our TOP POLITICAL LEADER at the time (1940’s) not charge Mr Jinnah of High Treason and demand that Mr Jinnah be punished under Law?
Another question is, “What is the definition of ENEMY?” How is it that those who captured one third of India and slaughtered nearly two million Hindus and Sikhs have not been declared "enemies"?
It leads to another question, “Why was the property of all those who abandoned Bharat and went over to Pakistan VOUNTARILY, not confiscated by Government of India. In this connection one thinks of "Jinnah House" in Mumbai that is being maintained at public expense in Bharat!
Please recall what the honorable Germans did to all the NAZI's at the end of war and, in particular, to SPANDAU PRISON in Berlin where Rudolf Hess, a German politician and a leading member of the Nazi Party, was interned.
Finally, if the Pakistan Resolution was, indeed, an act of High Treason, then why did NO patriot (including "Mahatma" MK Gandhi, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Patel) at that time take notice and cry out?
-Patriot
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